Is RLI a one way street?

[EdLovrich]

With R3 on third base, B2 hits a fair ground ball to F3 who fields the ball beyond first base. F3 throws to F2 attempting to retire R3. The throw hits B2 who is running in fair territory in the last half of the distance to 1B and does not intentionally interfere with the ball. ​

What say you, umpires?​

A: This is interference, B2 is out and R3 is returned to third base.
B: This is interference, B2 is out and R3 is out.
C: This is not interference.

 

[kennykozman!!]

I don't think I have ever seen this happen. My initial reaction without rule support....lol would be no interference.

Reasoning is the running lane was designed for plays at first base. Runners are hit between bases with throws all the time with no interference.

This play was going to be at home plate right? I have nothing but also have nothing to back me up.......

It could be a good learning day!

 

[ArmWhip]

I would guess A but I'm interested in the answer. I don't think the runner's lane enters into it. Too me it's more like a double play situation where the runner goes into second standing up and gets hit by the relay to first, which I have always assumed to be interference.

 

[jackfrost]

C. Lane is only for throws going to 1B.

 

[mmeece]

Definitely C
But, I bet you could sure end up with an argument on that one

 

[marriard]

With R3 on third base, B2 hits a fair ground ball to F3 who fields the ball beyond first base. F3 throws to F2 attempting to retire R3. The throw hits B2 who is running in fair territory in the last half of the distance to 1B and does not intentionally interfere with the ball. ​

What say you, umpires?​

A: This is interference, B2 is out and R3 is returned to third base.
B: This is interference, B2 is out and R3 is out.
C: This is not interference.

C.

First the question says that F3 has fielded the Ball BEYOND 1B so if the the throw to 1B hits the runner it HAS to happen either after the runner has passed 1B, at the base or between 1B and home.

So there is NO POSSIBLE way she interfered with the play or throw to first - she was never between the ball and 1B

 

[Strike2]

How does an umpire determine "intent" on a play like this?

 

[EdLovrich]

@marriard Reread the question, the throw is to F2 to try to retire the runner at the plate.

 

[Eric F]

C.

First the question says that F3 has fielded the Ball BEYOND 1B so if the the throw to 1B hits the runner it HAS to happen either after the runner has passed 1B, at the base or between 1B and home.

So there is NO POSSIBLE way she interfered with the play or throw to first - she was never between the ball and 1B

The throw from F3 was to home, not to 1B. Recalibrate accordingly.

 

[Crabby_Bob]

OP's question often appears on umpire tests. Speaking NFHS, the question is similar to casebook play 8.2.6A.
The running lane is about a fielder receiving a throw at 1st base and is irrelevant to OP's situation.