- Jun 22, 2008
- 3,438
- 48
The question presented was the pitcher launches the ball over the backstop with the obvious intent to throw the ball out of play. If it was obvious her intent was to throw the ball out of play, would it also not be obvious she threw the ball with the intent to not allow the batter to strike at it? Not that it would make any difference if you called the IP or not, if there were runners on base they are going to move up a base anyway on the ball thrown out of play and its still just a ball on the batter.
But if the game is NCAA or NFHS, and the batter stands there with the bat in the strike zone and fails to pull it back as the ball goes over the backstop........