Infield Fly Rule Question

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I understand the rule and why we have it, but here's my question: At what point during the play does the umpire have to call it? In our game last night we had runners on 2nd & 3rd. The batter hits a high pop-up which was caught by the pitcher. It wasn't until after the runner was at 1st, the pitcher was walking back to the rubber, that the umpire called the runner out due to IF. I was sitting maybe 10 yards behind and to the side of the umpire, and although my hearing isn't the best, I certainly never heard him yell anything while the ball was in the air.

This is the same umpire who was calling strikes when the balls were coming across the plate as high as the brim of the batting helmet, and sent a girl to 1st on a 3-2 count, but I'm not criticizing :rolleyes:
 
Jun 24, 2013
1,059
36
Ideally it is called before the fielder makes an attempt to catch the ball but I do not think there is a set time frame it needs to be called.

By the way if you had runners on 2nd and 3rd the rule does not apply and should not have been called.
 
Sep 14, 2011
768
18
Glendale, AZ
Umpires are trained to call the infield fly when the ball reaches it's apex, or highest point. Sometimes, it is not always practical to make the call at that point due to fielders positions, sun, wind, and other factors. Umpires should make the call as soon as they can so that the baserunners know that they are not obligated to advance if the ball is not caught. What usually happens is that coaches and parents are yelling "Get on the bag!", "Tag up!", etc, etc...and nobody hears the infield fly call.

Two conditions have to exist in order to have an infield fly:

1. Less than 2 outs
2. Force play available at third base

It is permissable by rule for an umpire to apply the infield fly after the play if it was not called when it should have been and place runners accordingly. This usually becomes a sticky situation and somebody probably won't like the result. That is another reason that we train umpires to be aware of potential infield fly situations and react accordingly.
 
Aug 29, 2011
2,584
83
NorCal
If Blue called IFR rule without a runner on first base then he blew the call.

I was thinking the same.

I could be wrong but I though umps were taught to call it when the ball was at its peak. But I think it can techincally be called at any time the ball is in flight.
 
Mar 26, 2013
1,934
0
Umpires are supposed to signal IFF calls by extending their right arm up in the air, so participants and spectators should be aware of that instead of just relying on a verbal call that may be drowned out.

Umpires have additional signals they use to communicate and remind each other of the situation before pitches. The signal for IFF being in effect is touching the bill of their cap or top of the mask.
 
Jun 11, 2013
2,634
113
Because if he calls it, the runners know to stay put instead of getting caught between bases.

I'm not sure what you would do on a popup to the pitcher besides stay on the base. I was pretty much referring to the poster saying if they called it with 2nd and 3rd only there would have really protested. Now if was supposed to be called and not called and the player dropped the ball, I could see cause for argument.

I'm not trying to argue, just wondering if I am missing something.
 

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