Force play still on.

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Dec 6, 2010
139
0
Florida
Hope that when i explain the situation it makes since. Take in to consideration that this is 14u rec ball, here we go, R1 on 2nd and R2 on 1st with one out. B1 hits the ball to 2nd baseman, r1 runs to 3rd and R2 starts to 2nd base but sees that 2nd baseman catches the ball so she turns and goes back to first base. Mean while 2nd baseman throws the ball to the first baseman who tags B1 before she reaches 1st base, thhen she tags R2 who is standing on 1st base and umpire calls her out. I asked why he calls her out and he said that it was a force play and R1 had to run to 2nd base and didn't and was tag while standing on first base which caused her to be out.
I asked the umpire wasn't the force removed once the 1st baseman tagged the B1 before she reached 1st base and he said no. help in letting us know who was correct umpire or myself?
 
Mar 13, 2010
957
0
Columbus, Ohio
You were right and this is a protestable call.

When the batter-runner was tagged out, that removed all force plays at all bases. R2 is no longer forced to advance and may return to first base.
 

Cannonball

Ex "Expert"
Feb 25, 2009
4,882
113
Another way to look at this. Suppose B1 hit a shot-one hopper to 1B and so, 1B snags the batted ball and tags the runner. Then, 1B throws the ball to SS covering 2B. Runner has broken late because she thought there was a chance that shot to 1B could be caught. Runner from 1st now stops advancement to 2B and gets in rundown. During rundown, she makes it back to 1st. She would be safe. Otherwise, why have the rundown in the first place. The SS would have been able to just step on the bag. Now that clarified it didn't it. LOL
 
Dec 6, 2010
139
0
Florida
I agree. At first I thought that B1 reached 1st base before the tag and umpire was calling both out, but our 1st base coach said she was tagged before reaching the base.
We talked to the umpire afterwards and he said in his view he was right but was willing to go read up on the rules to see what the correct call was.
 
May 24, 2013
12,461
113
So Cal
...R2 starts to 2nd base but sees that 2nd baseman catches the ball so she turns and goes back to first base.

Was the ball caught (fly ball) or fielded (grounder)?

If the ball was caught in the air, the batter-runner is already out, and both R1 and R2 need to get back to their original base.

If it was a fielded grounder, I agree with the others who have responded, tagging the batter-runner before reaching 1B removes the force for R2.
 
Oct 4, 2011
663
0
Colorado
http://www.providencejournal.com/sp...y-at-first-base-proves-costly-for-red-sox.ece

I think the umpire was correct, yet ultimately incorrect, just like the Red Sox in the article above. Once the ball is hit fair, the runner at 1st no longer has a right to that base. She must vacate it. However, if the batter is tagged or forced out first, then the runner may stay at 1st. There was an opportunity for a double play (assuming it was a ground ball or a bobbled line out): tag the girl standing at first, then step on first?
 
Last edited:

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
Confusing play at first base proves costly for Red Sox | Red Sox - Complete analysis & insight | The Providence Journal

I think the umpire was correct, yet ultimately incorrect, just like the Red Sox in the article above. Once the ball is hit fair, the runner at 1st no longer has a right to that base. She must vacate it. However, if the batter is tagged or forced out first, then the runner may stay at 1st. There was an opportunity for a double play (assuming it was a ground ball or a bobbled line out): tag the girl standing at first, then step on first?

the umpire was wrong, period. A runner is NEVER required to run. Granted, it gives them a much better chance to not being put out, but it is never required. It is the defense's responsibility to know how to retire them. A runner is only forced from a base, never to a base. Once a trailing runner or batter-runner is retired, no runner can be forced from a base.
 
Mar 15, 2014
191
18
This is a typical question asked on an umpire exam.
No outs, runner on first.
Batter his a ground ball to F3 and the runner is still standing on first base.
F3 steps in first and then tags the runner.
How many outs??
The answer is one.
Tagging the base first removes the force of R1
Had F3 first tagged the runner and then stepped on first there would be a double play.
 

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