Another overthrow question

[obbay]

batter lays down a bunt and throw to 1B goes past 1B into right field foul, eventually ending up out of play.
runner was past 1B when it was ruled out of play - because there was only one throw and it wound up out of play, does that mean the BR gets two bases from home the same as if the throw went directly out of play?

it was kind of weird. you had to be there

 

[Comp]

It is 2 bases from the time of the throw, if the batter/runner had not yet reached 1st at the time of the throw the award is 2nd base.