Runner hit by batted ball
- Thread starter Mcuculich
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I’m glad I found this website, thanks for everyone responding. I was upset about that call Sunday so I apologize to everyone I may of offended. It’s just a game, no reason for me to act like that. I still think in that situation that was the wrong call in that situation, the fielders are pretty much always going to be positioned in front of the runners especially at the corners. But.... doesn’t even matter anymore.
You simply cant grasp the concept here. No, the runner will not always be called safe just because F3 and F5 are playing in front of the base. You are so dead set on the call was wrong you refuse to understand the rule. The rule says if the ball has passed an infielder AND no other fielder has the opportunity to make an out...….. Who exactly had an opportunity to make an out in your play? F3 was playing in and apparently the ball was hit to the 2nd base side of her, and by your own description of the play F4 had abandoned her normal fielding position to cover 2nd base on the steal. So exactly what infielder was going to field the ball????? If the umpire judged F9 had no opportunity to make an out the call was absolutely correct.
I think few umpires have this interpretation. My daughter has the privilege of batting in front of one our monster lefties and has been hit by her rocket line drives and ground balls more times than I can count. These are balls that have flown by the first baseman playing in and hit hard enough that no second baseman has a chance to field and she is always called out. I've always understood the rule as you state it here but never get it called that way.
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This has been a long post going round and round, I'm glad it is ending, I agree with Comp on his interpretation. But that doesn't mean every ump understands it the same as it's written so we will have many different outcomes for the upcoming years. There's still life after. Lets go back to the pitching thread and talk with Java. 
This, to say the least, has been hugely entertaining. And informative, not only as to the nature of the rules and their interpretations but also to the nature of the crazed, over-competitive, and rude parent.
And informative, not only as to the nature of the rules and their interpretations but also to the nature of the crazed, over-competitive, and rude parent.
No I am saying the ball HAS NOT PASSED AN INFIELDER therefore it is irrelevant that no other fielder has the opportunity to make an out. If F3 had no play on the ball because it was hit hard to where F4 should be/normally would be when it hits the runner it hasn't passed an infielder when it hits the runner going from 1st to 2nd.
If I am wrong - and you are going to say the ball 'passed an infielder' - i.e. F3 who never had a play on the ball - under your interpretation a hard hit up the middle that SS or 2B had no chance to catch or field but hits the runner going from second to third is not out/live ball because it has passed an infielder (either F3 or F5) and no one had a chance to make an out (catch/field/whatever). Are you saying you are not going to call that an out?
"Passed an infielder" is meant to refer to an infielder actually having a chance to make a play but missed the ball completely (which is why the rule excludes the pitcher). It isn't meant to refer to someone not involved in the play. The 'opportunity to make an out' is there to cover a second fielder who has a chance to make an out off a deflection or completely missed ball but can't because it hits the runner.
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Please provide your case play, rule, clarification etc which says the infielder has to have a play on the ball in order for the ball to be considered past them for it to not be an infraction? I have searched all the USA case plays and clarifications and there is no such statement.
There was no 2nd infielder in the play presented to make a potential play on the ball. F4 by his own description was over covering 2nd base on the steal.
I have found 1 case play in NFHS that talks about no fielder having an opportunity to field the ball.
NFHS 8.6.12With R1 on second, B2 hits between F5 and F6, both of whom are playing close for a possible bunt. The ball touches R1 and deflects to foul ground. F5 and F6 were in such a position that there was no chance to play the ball. Ruling: If R1 accidentally touched the ball, it is ignored because the batted ball passed a fielder and no other fielder had an opportunity to make an out. If R1 intentionally deflected the batted ball, the umpire shall rule interference, the ball becomes dead, R1 is declared out and B2 is awarded first base.
NFHS 8.6.12With R1 on second, B2 hits between F5 and F6, both of whom are playing close for a possible bunt. The ball touches R1 and deflects to foul ground. F5 and F6 were in such a position that there was no chance to play the ball. Ruling: If R1 accidentally touched the ball, it is ignored because the batted ball passed a fielder and no other fielder had an opportunity to make an out. If R1 intentionally deflected the batted ball, the umpire shall rule interference, the ball becomes dead, R1 is declared out and B2 is awarded first base.
Assuming all rule sets apply the rule the same way, this is pretty damn clear as it relates to the OP's play.
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