Interesting rule interpretation by umpire

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Sep 14, 2011
768
18
Glendale, AZ
I would agree that in 10U she should not have been out. Unless of course she purposely kicked the ball, or was looking at the ball as it hit her. I would have argued that if she had to wait until the ball passed her before running, then she was effectively being held back by the umpires the same as if it were a fly ball.

The runner doesn't have to wait for anything. The rule has been quoted.

The umpires have nothing to do with holding or sending a runner.....
 
Jun 11, 2013
2,636
113
I've seen a fair number of RF throw throw out runners at 1st, but don't see how the ump can assume they would. Most people just assume if you get hit by the ball you are out and that's usually how the umps rule, but they are often wrong. We had a game last year 12U TB close game 1st,2nd. The girl hit one to RF and it hit our R1 on the foot, The RF proceeded to throw to second before R1 got there. PU called batter out and BU called girls on 2nd out. I was not a coach, but asked the ump if he was sure. I told him R1 was out R2 goes to 3rd and Batter gets 1st. He said he was sure. Instead for R1 AND R3 with 1 out we had R3 with 2. To his credit he came over during our next game and said he looked it up and was wrong.
 
Jun 22, 2008
3,767
113
I've seen a fair number of RF throw throw out runners at 1st, but don't see how the ump can assume they would. Most people just assume if you get hit by the ball you are out and that's usually how the umps rule, but they are often wrong. We had a game last year 12U TB close game 1st,2nd. The girl hit one to RF and it hit our R1 on the foot, The RF proceeded to throw to second before R1 got there. PU called batter out and BU called girls on 2nd out. I was not a coach, but asked the ump if he was sure. I told him R1 was out R2 goes to 3rd and Batter gets 1st. He said he was sure. Instead for R1 AND R3 with 1 out we had R3 with 2. To his credit he came over during our next game and said he looked it up and was wrong.

Except if they were ruling the runner out for being hit by a batted ball, the play is dead, runner who was hit is out, B/R awarded 1st base and all other runners return to the last base touched at the time of the interference. In this case, you would have had runners on 1st and 2nd, not 1st and 3rd.
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
I've seen a fair number of RF throw throw out runners at 1st, but don't see how the ump can assume they would.

It is what the umpires are there to do, "judge" interference and quite a few other things. And in this case, the rules specifically direct the umpire to make such a decision.
 

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