Sorry, I looked back a few pages and I know this subject has been covered a lot I just need some clearing up.
Situation was 1 out, runner on first. Wicked change up that dropped right in front of the plate that gets the batter to swing. Strike 3. Runner on 1st breaks for second, DD scoops up the pitch but bobble the transition so didn't attempt the throw down. Batter heads to the dugout and DD passes the ball to the pitcher.I noticed that the blue didn't call an out so we hollered at our pitcher to throw it to 1st. Then the blue called it. I called time and walked up to the blue and asked him why it wasn't an out when 1st base was occupied. He told me it wasn't because the 1st base runner was in the process of stealing 2nd. I said yes "process" but technically still occupying 1st. I've heard/read before not sure on this site or not but a base is considered occupied until the runner reaches the next base. I didn't argue with the blue and the play did not affect the game in any way. I just hate getting into a situation and not knowing 100% whether I'm right or not. So I'm asking, am I right in that 1st base is occupied resulting in an automatic out with 1or less outs on a drop 3rd strike. Or was the blue right in that the base no longer becomes occupied during a base steal attempt. Help me out guys. I forgot to mention this was a 10U game
Situation was 1 out, runner on first. Wicked change up that dropped right in front of the plate that gets the batter to swing. Strike 3. Runner on 1st breaks for second, DD scoops up the pitch but bobble the transition so didn't attempt the throw down. Batter heads to the dugout and DD passes the ball to the pitcher.I noticed that the blue didn't call an out so we hollered at our pitcher to throw it to 1st. Then the blue called it. I called time and walked up to the blue and asked him why it wasn't an out when 1st base was occupied. He told me it wasn't because the 1st base runner was in the process of stealing 2nd. I said yes "process" but technically still occupying 1st. I've heard/read before not sure on this site or not but a base is considered occupied until the runner reaches the next base. I didn't argue with the blue and the play did not affect the game in any way. I just hate getting into a situation and not knowing 100% whether I'm right or not. So I'm asking, am I right in that 1st base is occupied resulting in an automatic out with 1or less outs on a drop 3rd strike. Or was the blue right in that the base no longer becomes occupied during a base steal attempt. Help me out guys. I forgot to mention this was a 10U game