what is your call on this play

[Ajaywill]

With all the action happening in fair territory here, I thought the call was fairly straightforward.

What, as described, did the runner do to interfere after scoring?

 

[Momo'sDad]

What, as described, did the runner do to interfere after scoring?

Nothing. My initial call was that - because there was no INT - then the ball is still live, and there has been no ASA rule presented to contradict that.

 

[SoCal_Dad]

Yes, the ball batted into fair territory is fair until it's foul.
A batted ball is neither fair nor foul until it is determined to be one or the other. None of the definitions describe a temporary status.

If the scoring runner contacts home plate and then contacts the previously untouched ball in fair territory and interferes with the defense's ability to make a play, the run still counts and the INT call means that the runner nearest home is out.

With all the action happening in fair territory here, I thought the call was fairly straightforward.

I understand 8-7P. The question I raised is based on the runner not legally scoring until the ball was determined to be fair (i.e. not foul) which happened when the ball hit her. Even though she had already touched home plate, she was still a runner until the ball can be determined to be fair.

Comp, MTR, Crabby Bob, Bretman - how do you resolve whether she was a runner (8-7K) and/or a player that had scored (8-7P) in this case?

 

[BretMan]

I understand 8-7P. The question I raised is based on the runner not legally scoring until the ball was determined to be fair (i.e. not foul) which happened when the ball hit her. Even though she had already touched home plate, she was still a runner until the ball can be determined to be fair.

Comp, MTR, Crabby Bob, Bretman - how do you resolve whether she was a runner (8-7K) and/or a player that had scored (8-7P) in this case?

Absent some obscure reference I'm not aware of, in my own mind I resolve this by considering her "a player who has scored" up until the point when something happens that would cause the ball to be declared foul.

I guess I'm looking at it as batted balls are, by default, all considered to be fair until they are called foul.

 

[Greenmonsters]

Absent some obscure reference I'm not aware of, in my own mind I resolve this by considering her "a player who has scored" up until the point when something happens that would cause the ball to be declared foul.

I guess I'm looking at it as batted balls are, by default, all considered to be fair until they are called foul.

Hypothetical. Suicide squeeze with runners on 2nd and 3rd with one out. Bunt down 3rd baseline, runner starting on third scores easily as the defense watches the ball roll slowly up the 3rd baseline hoping it will roll foul. Runner starting on 2B was also stealing and rounds 3rd and touches the ball in fair territory just before it looks like its going to roll foul. What then?

And from my earlier post -

Originally Posted by Comp
Letting a ball roll foul does not meet the definition of a play. Play: An attempt by a defensive player to retire an offensive player. Letting a ball roll foul is not an attempt to retire a player. In order to rule interference, being hit by the ball in fair territory after scoring would have to actually prevent the defense from making an out.

My response: If the catcher ultimately picks up the ball and throws the ball to first (even if the batter/runner is standing on the bag), is that not a "play", albeit an ill-advised attempt at trying to retire a batter/runner or runner??? Whether there exists a legitimate chance to get an out or not is irrelevant, no?

 

[Comp]

If the batter/runner is already standing on 1st base when the catcher ultimately picks up the ball and throws it, how has there been any interference on the play?

 

[nealwallen]

Comp, if i posted this before I am sorry. It is a good question and got plenty of responses so I am glad i repeated it

Here is the ASA Ruling per rulebook


RULE 8 – SECTION 7P AND EFFECT.
RULING: Runner scores. Runner interferes. Ball is dead. Runner closet to home plate is out (in this instance, the batter would be out).
EXPLANATION: Again, runner slides home safely and scores. Home plate is never “occupied,” you score and that’s it. So the point about being in contact with home plate at the time of the interference has no bearing. The next part of the play, the runner that just scored interferes with a fair batted ball treat it as a runner that scored, and has now interfered with a defensive player’s opportunity to make a play on another runner (just like on deck batter interference, or retired runner interference). With the interference, the ball is dead and the runner closest to home plate would also be out. Again, for this play, it would be the batter-runner.

 

[Ajaywill]

Comp, if i posted this before I am sorry. It is a good question and got plenty of responses so I am glad i repeated it

Here is the ASA Ruling per rulebook


RULE 8 – SECTION 7P AND EFFECT.
RULING: Runner scores. Runner interferes. Ball is dead. Runner closet to home plate is out (in this instance, the batter would be out).
EXPLANATION: Again, runner slides home safely and scores. Home plate is never “occupied,” you score and that’s it. So the point about being in contact with home plate at the time of the interference has no bearing. The next part of the play, the runner that just scored interferes with a fair batted ball treat it as a runner that scored, and has now interfered with a defensive player’s opportunity to make a play on another runner (just like on deck batter interference, or retired runner interference). With the interference, the ball is dead and the runner closest to home plate would also be out. Again, for this play, it would be the batter-runner.

Neal - I will ask you this question....Please explain exactly what the runner did to interfere after she scored?

From your OP, I don't see anything there that can be considered interference.

 

[Ajaywill]

Hypothetical. Suicide squeeze with runners on 2nd and 3rd with one out. Bunt down 3rd baseline, runner starting on third scores easily as the defense watches the ball roll slowly up the 3rd baseline hoping it will roll foul. Runner starting on 2B was also stealing and rounds 3rd and touches the ball in fair territory just before it looks like its going to roll foul. What then?

Dead ball, runner that was struck with the batted ball is out. All other runners return to the last base touched at the time of the interference. In your play, R1 from third scores, batter runner is placed either at first or second, whichever base she touched prior to R2 being hit with the ball. This is only in effect if the ball has not yet passed an infielder other than the pitcher.

And from my earlier post -

Originally Posted by Comp
Letting a ball roll foul does not meet the definition of a play. Play: An attempt by a defensive player to retire an offensive player. Letting a ball roll foul is not an attempt to retire a player. In order to rule interference, being hit by the ball in fair territory after scoring would have to actually prevent the defense from making an out.

My response: If the catcher ultimately picks up the ball and throws the ball to first (even if the batter/runner is standing on the bag), is that not a "play", albeit an ill-advised attempt at trying to retire a batter/runner or runner??? Whether there exists a legitimate chance to get an out or not is irrelevant, no?

There must be a play to be interfered with. If there is no legimate chance to make an out (umpire judgement), there is no interference. It IS relevant.

 

[Comp]

Nothing in the rules say anything about occupying a base when hit by a fair batted ball, it merely states the runner is either in contact or is not in contact with a base.