what is your call on this play

[CoogansBluff]

I'm not knowledgeable enough to make a guess on the OP's scenario.

That didn't stop me.

 

[Sweet Lou]

She is no longer a base runner. You got nothing.

That was my thought but she could still interfere with the ability to get the batted runner at first.

 

[Sweet Lou]

That didn't stop me.

:lol: I approved and second this!

 

[SoCal_Dad]

What made me say that was the MLB umpire quiz that was making the rounds last year. I went and looked it up --

1) The Phillies have Ben Revere on second base and no outs when Michael Young hits a shot to Reds third baseman Todd Frazier, who is playing at normal depth. On the pitch, Revere attempts to steal third and is hit by the batted ball while sliding into the base. Even though Revere was on third base when struck by the batted ball, he should be called out because he interfered with Frazier and kept him from making a play. True or false?

True. With the exception of the infield fly rule, the base does not provide a sanctuary for the runner if struck by a batted ball while on it.

But now the answer to the quiz confuses me. It says the base does not provide a sanctuary for the running being struck by a batted ball. Well, that makes sense for interference, but what about just being hit by a batted ball that was going to be a base hit?

The MLB rule is written differently. Here is the one for the quiz (no sanctuary):

Rule 7.08(f) He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance. EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching his base when touched by an Infield Fly, he is not out, although the batter is out;

Legally occupying a base does have an effect on whether the runner can be called out for hindering a fielder that is attempting to make a play on a batted ball.

Rule 7.08(b) Comment: A runner who is adjudged to have hindered a fielder who is attempting to make a play on a batted ball is out whether it was intentional or not.
If, however, the runner has contact with a legally occupied base when he hinders the fielder, he shall not be called out unless, in the umpire’s judgment, such hindrance, whether it occurs on fair or foul territory, is intentional.

The rule for your question seems to be the same as ASA.

Rule 7.09(k) A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball. If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference.

 

[Comp]

Same play posted April of last year by same poster.

http://www.discussfastpitch.com/softball-rules-questions/9353-runner-steals-home-whats-call.html

 

[Sparky Guy]

Going with heavy backspin noted in the OP that would have allowed to the ball to roll completely into foul territory.

The runner is out because she contacted and interfered with a batted ball before it passed a fielder. Had the ball not touched her it would have simply been a foul ball and the runner would have been returned to 3rd base with a strike added to the batter's count if less than two strikes were on her. Had the runner been completely in foul territory it would have been a foul ball and the runner returned to 3rd base with a strike added to the batter's count if less than two strikes were on her.

The runners feet crossing the plate are irrelevant. The play on the batter/runner was never completed because of the base runner's action.

No run scoring would have been recorded.

The runner is out.

 

[Comp]

A runner who has scored cannot be called out.

 

[SoCal_Dad]

A runner who has scored cannot be called out.

I presume you mean in this case because they can be called out on appeal for missing a base or leaving early on a caught fly ball.

 

[Ajaywill]

For the purpose of the rule, there is no "runner" in the scenario that has been hit by a batted ball. Once she touched the plate, she becomes a runner that has scored and is subject to a different portion of the interference rule. As a runner that has scored, she must "do something" to interfere. For example, kicking or swatting the ball away from a fielder. Simply being hit by the ball is nothing.

In order to call interference, there must also be a play to be interferred with. In the OP, I have a hard time imagining that by the time the ball hits the runner from third, that the Batter-Runner is not already at or darn close to first and there is no chance of getting her out at first. Now if she rounds first and is subject to being put out between first and second, it could be a different story.

Most likely call, barring any further information, is fair ball, play on.

 

[Comp]

I presume you mean in this case because they can be called out on appeal for missing a base or leaving early on a caught fly ball.

A runner subject to being called out on appeal has not legally scored until either appealed or the next pitch legal or illegal. A runner who has legally scored cannot be called out. In the OP the runner has met all the requirements to have legally scored and cannot be called out. If the umpire were to determine there was interference with a play on the batter/runner, the interference is on a runner who has scored and the out would be on the runner closest to home, or in this case the batter/runner.