Scoring question re: FC

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Jan 27, 2010
1,869
83
NJ
Today we had R1 at 1st. B1 hits a chip shot right over second into the OF. CF is able to pick up the ball and fire to second to get the force.

Immediately I wrote FC but later wondered since there was no play at first, was it really an FC?
 
Jan 27, 2010
1,869
83
NJ
But doesn't the whole FC indicate there was a play at first giving the fielder a choice? If there was no play at 1st should there have been no play at second? I don't want to arbitrarily take away a hit to the outfield due to a possible base running error/issue. Does the FC include outfield hits?

Most everything I have read following this original post indicates it is an FC. Why I don't know but it's like a BR getting hit by a ball and the batter not getting a hit.
 
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Aug 14, 2011
158
0
It's a FC because a preceding runner was forced out. Think of it in this way: It's the batter's obligation to safely advance the runner. An out on the runner advancing to the next bag means that the batter didn't do their job- FC. For a FC to be credited, a play does not always have to exist on the batter.
 
May 23, 2012
362
18
Eastlake, OH
I'm referring to NCAA scoring rule
Section 4 Base hit not credited
A hit is not credited to the batter in the following situations:
14.4.5 When a runner is forced out on a batted ball or would have been forced out except for a fielding error.

The idea is that a fielder had a choice between plays, not that a play was attempted at first. Fielder chooses to assist to put out the lead runner instead of the batter runner. If there was no runner the attempt would have gone to 1B to put put out the BR. In your judgement the BR might have been safe if the attempt was made at 1B. There is no specific exception to this in 14.4.1-7 that I understand or 14.7.1-5.

The good news is if I'm incorrect, someone here will give you the correct answer and we'll both learn from it.
 
May 23, 2012
362
18
Eastlake, OH
I do see a quirk in the rules though. You can't assume a double play. So if the defensive player recording the PO makes an attempt at the BR at 1B would the very same play be scored a base hit?
 
Jun 27, 2011
5,083
0
North Carolina
I do see a quirk in the rules though. You can't assume a double play. So if the defensive player recording the PO makes an attempt at the BR at 1B would the very same play be scored a base hit?

Still a fielder's choice, no hit.

Let's say you have a 'routine' double-play opportunity, but the first baseman drops the ball at first. Strangely, that is not an error. The rules are essentially saying that once the defense gets one out, the defense has done its job. Anything after that is gravy, and there will be no penalty for not getting the gravy.
 
Mar 26, 2013
1,930
0
Most everything I have read following this original post indicates it is an FC. Why I don't know but it's like a BR getting hit by a ball and the batter not getting a hit.
Batter does get a hit if their fair batted ball contacts a runner after going past a fielder.

NCAA - A base hit is credited to a batter when she advances to a base safely:
14.3.9 On a fair batted ball not touched by a fielder that touches a runner or umpire.

If a runner interferes with a batted ball, the batter gets a hit or FC depending on whether they would have been safe without the interference.
 
I'm referring to NCAA scoring rule
Section 4 Base hit not credited
A hit is not credited to the batter in the following situations:
14.4.5 When a runner is forced out on a batted ball or would have been forced out except for a fielding error.

The idea is that a fielder had a choice between plays, not that a play was attempted at first. Fielder chooses to assist to put out the lead runner instead of the batter runner. If there was no runner the attempt would have gone to 1B to put put out the BR. In your judgement the BR might have been safe if the attempt was made at 1B. There is no specific exception to this in 14.4.1-7 that I understand or 14.7.1-5.

The good news is if I'm incorrect, someone here will give you the correct answer and we'll both learn from it.

Answer is hiding in plain sight, the way it is worded is "or" not and which means either a runner was forced on a batted ball or no where in the rule does it state there has to be a play on the batter.
 
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