How should this one be ruled/

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Jun 22, 2008
3,763
113
Depends on if the umpire judges one of the outfielders had the possibility of making an out.

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obbay

Banned
Aug 21, 2008
2,199
0
Boston, MA
. If ground ball goes by infielder, not P, and hits runner still live ball and no one is out?

I remember reading ina rulebook (dont remember which one, couldve been LL but i was thinking it was ASA) that once the ball was past the first IF that could make a play, the automatic out was no longer in effect (im paraphrasing here) but Comp adds another layer of intrigue here as i can see how it could be ruled interference if there was a second player in position to make a play and the runners contact with the ball interfered with the possibilty of the 2nd player making a play.

On a related note, Twice i have seen baserunners called out for interference between 2B and 3B when a SS colided with them when chasing a ball they couldnt get. On first occasion, the umpire said, “i dont know if she couldve made the play or not because the contact happened before the ball got thru to the OF.
On the second occasion, the ball was hit to the right of 2B and played by the 2B. BR started off from second and then took off for 3B when she saw them go for the out at 1B, and the collision happened. That was in HS so no explanation on that one.
 
Last edited:
Oct 25, 2013
90
8
DFW Area
...
On the second occasion, the ball was hit to the right of 2B and played by the 2B. BR started off from second and then took off for 3B when she saw them go for the out at 1B, and the collision happened. That was in HS so no explanation on that one.

That sound like OBS, not INT.
 

Cannonball

Ex "Expert"
Feb 25, 2009
4,882
113
Baseball rules have little to do with softball rules. Just the same as don't use NCAA rules for USA or USA rules for nfhs.

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I understand that. I was just giving a reference for why I thought that. In 2002, I was still coaching baseball. I knew I had a reference to that rule somewhere and found it.
 
Mar 14, 2017
457
43
Michigan
The runner cannot be called out for INT when in contact with a base unless the runner intentionally commits an act of INT. Standing on a base is not an act of INT. (USA 8.8.M)

What would be your interpretation of intentionally? For instance obvious movement or waving the arms of course, but if I stand like a statue on the base knowing the ball will hit me and the fielder will not be able to make a play versus moving to the edge of the bag or leaning to avoid the contact, could that be viewed as intentional? If I'm purposefully impeding the play by being a statue is that intentional?
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
What would be your interpretation of intentionally? For instance obvious movement or waving the arms of course, but if I stand like a statue on the base knowing the ball will hit me and the fielder will not be able to make a play versus moving to the edge of the bag or leaning to avoid the contact, could that be viewed as intentional? If I'm purposefully impeding the play by being a statue is that intentional?

Seems I already answered that in my first post (#3)
 

obbay

Banned
Aug 21, 2008
2,199
0
Boston, MA
. That sound like OBS, not INT.
Thats what we thought, but the HS coach doesnt know the rules and just accepted the call.
Same guy has let his players get steamrolled with clearly Malicious Contact, but he said nothing. “Runner has her right to the base” i think is how he explained that one.
 

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