The play went like this...
Runner at first base. 2nd baseman shaded a little towards first base. Ball hit very hard, one hopper to 2nd baseman. Ball hit her glove, bounced out, she bent to recover the ball and had plenty of time to still throw out the runner who was barely half way to 1st base. The runner from 1st ran into the fielder and knocked her to the ground. By the time she got up, the runner was at 1st. The collision was significant, and not a "flop". The umpire ruled that since the ball had hit her glove and she did not field it cleanly, there was no interference and it did not matter that she still had a play at 1st base. What would be the interpretation of the rule? Would you agree or disagree?
Runner at first base. 2nd baseman shaded a little towards first base. Ball hit very hard, one hopper to 2nd baseman. Ball hit her glove, bounced out, she bent to recover the ball and had plenty of time to still throw out the runner who was barely half way to 1st base. The runner from 1st ran into the fielder and knocked her to the ground. By the time she got up, the runner was at 1st. The collision was significant, and not a "flop". The umpire ruled that since the ball had hit her glove and she did not field it cleanly, there was no interference and it did not matter that she still had a play at 1st base. What would be the interpretation of the rule? Would you agree or disagree?