Not really a big deal, and if I'm right and the call was missed, it actually went in our favor, but I'm just curious so I understand the rules better.
Lead off batter for the inning. Pops up in between home and 1st, but slightly foul (2-3 feet foul or so.) Runner books down baseline, and pitcher books over to try to catch the ball and they collide (and collide hard, both were on the ground for a few breaths.) Ball drops foul.
Nothing was called. Umpire said because the ball was foul there was no obstruction or interference. Foul ball, pitch again.
I'm thinking that was wrong, though? I would've though it should still be interference on the runner. I'm not positive the pitcher could've gotten to the ball, but I'm not positive that she couldn't get there either (and does that matter?) But foul ball or not, there was a chance the pitcher could've made the play and because of the collision, there was zero chance she could get there.
So that's my question, was the umpire correct in a no call because the ball was foul (or maybe in her judgement the pitcher couldn't get to the ball anyway if that matters?) or should it have been interference?
Thanks!
Lead off batter for the inning. Pops up in between home and 1st, but slightly foul (2-3 feet foul or so.) Runner books down baseline, and pitcher books over to try to catch the ball and they collide (and collide hard, both were on the ground for a few breaths.) Ball drops foul.
Nothing was called. Umpire said because the ball was foul there was no obstruction or interference. Foul ball, pitch again.
I'm thinking that was wrong, though? I would've though it should still be interference on the runner. I'm not positive the pitcher could've gotten to the ball, but I'm not positive that she couldn't get there either (and does that matter?) But foul ball or not, there was a chance the pitcher could've made the play and because of the collision, there was zero chance she could get there.
So that's my question, was the umpire correct in a no call because the ball was foul (or maybe in her judgement the pitcher couldn't get to the ball anyway if that matters?) or should it have been interference?
Thanks!