Where does the 1st baseman stand getting a throw from RF ?

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Dec 7, 2011
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And thats why I caveated my answer with if there was actually a play being made on the batter/runner. If so, 8-2-M-3 requires the b/r to use the colored portion of 1st base.

So you're saying too that in this case where there easily could have been a bang-bang 9-3 put-out that the 1st baseman HAS the right to occupy the back second base side part of the white bag?

I would agree then and this ump would have been incorrect.

(It's cool how many times a really good fielding "gun of an arm" can make this play from F9. I guess it's just conditioning and runner speed that has this play almost never happening on tv with D1 college SB.......)
 
Jun 22, 2008
3,767
113
Based on how you described what happened, it sounds like the throw never came to F3 after F9 bobbled the ball. In that case, there was never a play and obstruction would have been the correct call. However, if the throw had been coming and as you said was going to be a banger, then as I stated the rules require the b/r to use the colored portion of the base.
 

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