does it matter at all if the runner at third was in fair or foul territory, as far as the interference call goes? Seen many line drive foul balls right down the third base line where the third baseman couldn't get to becasue the runner was in their way, but never thought much of it because the runner was leading off in foul territory.
A Question about Offensive Interference
- Thread starter RetiredCoach
- Start date
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- Mar 1, 2013
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The runner cannot interfere with the defense's ability to field a batted ball. Doesn't matter where they are. The only real exception is that if they are in contact with the base, they are exempt from accidentally interfering (i.e. they need to do something that the umpire judges intentional).
- Jun 22, 2008
- 3,438
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Re-read the rule that CPEM quoted, specifically the note:
When the INT is called, the ball is dead, the runner is out, and the batter is awarded first base. She doesn't come up again. That's how you fill in the box: awarded first base -- I think it affects stats similarly to a FC, but don't quote me on that.
- Oct 24, 2010
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The OP states that R1 (on third) interferes with F5 trying to catch a fly ball in FOUL territory. Awarding 1st base to the batter is an interesting twist, to say the least.
However, continue reading the R/S and in there you get a not-so-clear clarification for foul fly-balls: If the ball could have been caught with normal effort, then both the runner and and the batter are declared out. If it could not have been caught, then the foul ball is, to quote MTR, a foul ball. Nothing else, just a foul ball (hat tip to Amy in AZ' signature for ingraining this into my memory). I say this is vaguely worded because it leaves open this possibility on a catchable foul fly ball of the runner being called out for the 3rd out, and what do you do with the batter? I'm of similar opinion as RetiredCoach: the runner is out on a batted-ball-in-play, ending the batter's turn at-bat. Umpire brought up a good point about leaving no empty boxes in a scorebook. Checking ASA's Rule 11, Section 3, it states: A BASE HIT shall not be scored: When a batter reaches first base safely as a result of a preceding runner being called out for interfering with a batted or thrown ball, or with a defensive player. As honus14 stated above, I believe this gets treated similar to a FC, or, more appropriately, any other instance of interference on a batted-ball in fair territory. Does a batter return to bat lead-off in the next inning if her fair ground ball or line drive hits a runner, or if a runner interferes with a defender fielding her fair ground or flyball? Ultimately, I believe the important question to answer is if the foul fly ball was catchable. If yes, then R1 is out, B4's turn at-bat has been completed, and B5 should lead off the next inning.
EDIT:
Re-reading my post, especially the part about ASA Rule 11, I am still of mixed opinion. Since it was a foul ball, the batter would not reach first base safely. I hope to see some clarification from the more experienced umpires.
2ND EDIT:
My mixed opinion is further mixed because, had there been fewer than 2 outs, and the ball was deemed catchable with normal effort by the umpire, then the batter would also be called out.
Last edited:
You should read the entire rule - the exception overrides the note.
Classic response by Crabby_Bob!
