Interference call today

[SoCal_Dad]

Was F6 the one that could field the ball first? If not, I'm looking for a case where the fielder is the primary fielder going after the ball, has no chance to catch it on the fly nor to retire anyone once they get it. Are they protected going after the fair batted ball or do they need to stay out of the way of runners because they don't have a play?

In the scenario I proposed, F4 was closer to the ball (edge of grass RCF), but was not able to get to it either. F6 was further away, AND collided with R1 and in no way could be protected from INT.
...
There is no guarantee for any/all defenders to be protected for INT, this would enable chaos by all 9 players going after the ball. But there is a maximum of one player.
Okay, I already understood that only 1 fielder can have the right-of-way to field a batted ball and your examples seem to focus on additional players that do not. I'm trying to determine if there are cases where no fielder has the right-of-way to field a fair batted ball because none have an opportunity to make an out.

For example, R1 on 1B, no outs and push bunt goes between F1/F3 because neither one could reach it. F4 was initially going to cover 1B and changes course because she is primary fielder to get ball. If F4 won't have a play when they get to the ball, does she need to stay out of R1's way or does she have the right-of-way?

Incomplete question. But what I think you are asking is if F4 changes direction to field the batted ball, and is hindered by R1, then yes, R1 would be guilty of INT.
Okay, although I don't see what's missing. This seems to indicate a play (i.e. opportunity to make an out) is NOT required while fielding a batted ball for INT to be called.

Bonus situation:
F5 charges a slow roller to the 5-6 hole and whiffs on it. F6 was also going after the ball and a runner collides with her after F5 whiffed. Is it OBS because F5 was the primary fielder or would it be INT if F6 had a play?

You’re getting your money’s worth tonight… Yeah, I feel so guilty about it that I'll pay double...

There is not enough detail in your question to give a definitive answer, but this could be INT on R if it was judged that F6 had a chance of retiring a runner sans the collision. Assuming we have an untouched batted ball in the process of being fielded by F6.

FWIW, whiffs = untouched and "had a play" = "chance of retiring a runner."

Thanks x 2.

 

[tcannizzo]

I'm trying to determine if there are cases where no fielder has the right-of-way to field a fair batted ball because none have an opportunity to make an out.

I'm trying for you, partner...
R1 on 3B, R2 on 2B. F5 playing up. F6 shaded towards 2B.
LH Slapper hits a flair over F5 along the foul line, just fair, just beyond the edge of the grass.
Nobody has a chance of catching this fly ball.

R1 gets tangled up with F5, F2 gets tangled up with F6. Lot's of OBS here.

 

[SoCal_Dad]

I'm trying for you, partner...
R1 on 3B, R2 on 2B. F5 playing up. F6 shaded towards 2B.
LH Slapper hits a flair over F5 along the foul line, just fair, just beyond the edge of the grass.
Nobody has a chance of catching this fly ball.

R1 gets tangled up with F5, F2 gets tangled up with F6. Lot's of OBS here.

Wow, some funky stuff. R1 should have come off 3B in foul territory, so it's unclear how she gets tangled up with F5 unless she headed back to 3B in fair territory... F2? I think you meant R2... I presume F6 was also playing in because otherwise I don't see how she gets tangled up with R2...

Anyway, thanks again for your help.

 

[tcannizzo]

Yeah, R2. Could be F5 turned towards the line...
Just when you think you've seen it all!!!