Base Running Question

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Mar 26, 2013
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In the OP, it cannot be INT since there is no other play available. And there certainly wasn't INT on a play at 1B since the BR already achieved the base prior to the contact. ...
Is there a possibility of INT for a play between 1B and 2B? BR achieved 1B, but also rounded it towards 2B which makes them liable to be put out, right? Say the sequence is 1) BR touches 1B, 2) F3 catches ball and 3) runner plows into back of F3 on a path towards 2B.
 
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MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
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Is there a possibility of INT for a play between 1B and 2B? BR achieved 1B, but also rounded it towards 2B which makes them liable to be put out, right? Say the sequence is 1) BR touches 1B, 2) F3 catches ball and 3) runner plows into back of F3 on a path towards 2B.

Okay, let's think about that. Assuming the BR was safe, what play was F3 attempting to execute with which R1 would be interfering?
 
Mar 26, 2013
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I'll play along... Even though the initial play in OP's case was an attempt to retire the BR before they reached 1B, the offensive player's path created more opportunities for plays. Lots of teams throw behind runners to pick them off if they round the base.
1) F3 could attempt a tag as the runner passes behind them.
2) F3 could tag the runner as they try to return to 1B.
3) F3 could throw the ball to 2B if the runner continues on.
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
I'll play along... Even though the initial play in OP's case was an attempt to retire the BR before they reached 1B, the offensive player's path created more opportunities for plays. Lots of teams throw behind runners to pick them off if they round the base.
1) F3 could attempt a tag as the runner passes behind them.
2) F3 could tag the runner as they try to return to 1B.
3) F3 could throw the ball to 2B if the runner continues on.

A lot of "could" have happens, but none of those scenarios were actually present to be judged. There must actually be a play for the umpire to judge before s/he can rule INT
 

Greenmonsters

Wannabe Duck Boat Owner
Feb 21, 2009
6,151
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New England
A lot of "could" have happens, but none of those scenarios were actually present to be judged. There must actually be a play for the umpire to judge before s/he can rule INT

Isn't a play defined as an attempt to put out a batter/runner? Would a late or on-time but wild throw to a base for a force not be a play simply because an out was not made?
 
Mar 26, 2013
1,930
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A lot of "could" have happens, but none of those scenarios were actually present to be judged. There must actually be a play for the umpire to judge before s/he can rule INT
Okay, I kinda expected that...

1) Runner knocks F3 down, takes 2-3 steps towards 2B before stopping and returns to 1B. F3 is a split-second late on a tag of the runner.

2) Runner knocks F3 down and continues to 2B. F3 gathers herself and makes a weak throw to 2B that arrives just after the runner.

3) Runner knocks F3 down and continues to 2B. F3 is too shaken up to make a throw.
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
Isn't a play defined as an attempt to put out a batter/runner? Would a late or on-time but wild throw to a base for a force not be a play simply because an out was not made?

Once the BR reached 1B safely, where is the possibility of an out with which the runner interfered?

Okay, I kinda expected that...

1) Runner knocks F3 down, takes 2-3 steps towards 2B before stopping and returns to 1B. F3 is a split-second late on a tag of the runner.

2) Runner knocks F3 down and continues to 2B. F3 gathers herself and makes a weak throw to 2B that arrives just after the runner.

3) Runner knocks F3 down and continues to 2B. F3 is too shaken up to make a throw.

Again, "what ifs" are not reason to call INT.

Here's one for you. R1 comes off 2B on a ground ball to F6. R1 starts to go behind as F6 fields the ball. F6 realizes R1 is close and begins to step back, but before she can make the tag, collides with R1, but never makes the tag. R1 gets up and makes it to 3B safely.

What, if any, call would you expect the umpire to make?
 

02Crush

Way past gone
Aug 28, 2011
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The Crazy Train
That is correct. Speaking ASA, NFHS, ISF and probably just about all associations other than NCAA, if the defender does not have possession (not possibly going to have, but in control of the ball), the defender is subject to an OBS call if his/her presence impedes the runner's progression. No gray areas, possession is an absolute with this rule.

While "incidental" contact may be an excuse for some extreme situations, it shouldn't be for OBS a runner. Remember, OBS is not a punitive award, but an award simply to negate the effects of the violation. In many cases, there are no additional bases awarded and the award is as likely to be the base behind the runner as it is the one in front.

For an umpire to use it as an excuse to ignore poor or unsporting behavior is cowardly. So many people have no problem buying the "hard play" attitude until it is their child out being put on the stretcher.

Thanks MTR, that answered my core question. Thanks everyone else for the input.
 

02Crush

Way past gone
Aug 28, 2011
786
0
The Crazy Train
Here's one for you. R1 comes off 2B on a ground ball to F6. R1 starts to go behind as F6 fields the ball. F6 realizes R1 is close and begins to step back, but before she can make the tag, collides with R1, but never makes the tag. R1 gets up and makes it to 3B safely. What, if any, call would you expect the umpire to make?

Seriously, God only knows.... or all you veteran umpires. :)
 
Dec 5, 2012
4,020
63
Mid West
To the OP,
MY .02¢… INTERFERENCE ON THE RUNNER.
No since in turning in on a bang bang play. The 1B allowed the runner the opportunity to sprint straight through.
 

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