Weird Dead Ball Question

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May 1, 2018
659
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So I've play ball my whole life but never seen this before.

Runners on 2nd and 3rd. 1 out. Pitch is delivered and swung at and missed. The ball hits the catchers leg and without touching anyone rolls into the dugout. No runners advance during the time, for some reason they all returned to their base.

What's the ruling here?
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
So I've play ball my whole life but never seen this before.

Runners on 2nd and 3rd. 1 out. Pitch is delivered and swung at and missed. The ball hits the catchers leg and without touching anyone rolls into the dugout. No runners advance during the time, for some reason they all returned to their base.

What's the ruling here?


The ball is dead, One base award to all runners from the time of the pitch.
 
Last edited:

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
Why the time of the pitch and not when the ball entered dead ball territory?

Sent from my SM-G960U using Tapatalk

Because that is the rule. Most, if not all, lost ball awards is from the last time the ball was possessed prior to entering DBT or becoming blocked
 
Jun 1, 2015
501
43
Many times, I believe, if the action that occurs is the FIRST action that prompts the ball to enter dead ball territory, the awarding of the bases occurs from where the runners FIRST are, which is the base at the time of the pitch. No different if a batter hits a ground ball, and an infielder, on her first throw, sends the ball to dead-ball territory. She is awarded 2nd base because she first possessed home at the time of the pitch, even if she reached 1st before the throw was made, etc.
 
Jul 3, 2013
438
43
Many times, I believe, if the action that occurs is the FIRST action that prompts the ball to enter dead ball territory, the awarding of the bases occurs from where the runners FIRST are, which is the base at the time of the pitch. No different if a batter hits a ground ball, and an infielder, on her first throw, sends the ball to dead-ball territory. She is awarded 2nd base because she first possessed home at the time of the pitch, even if she reached 1st before the throw was made, etc.

Some awards are from time of pitch, some are from time of throw. In your scenario, if the batter runner had reached first when the ball was thrown, she would be awarded 3rd base.
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
Many times, I believe, if the action that occurs is the FIRST action that prompts the ball to enter dead ball territory, the awarding of the bases occurs from where the runners FIRST are, which is the base at the time of the pitch. No different if a batter hits a ground ball, and an infielder, on her first throw, sends the ball to dead-ball territory. She is awarded 2nd base because she first possessed home at the time of the pitch, even if she reached 1st before the throw was made, etc.

What does that have to do with the OP? Hint: NOTHING
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
Never said it did. It was a response to grmerrill's question, but thanks for sounding like a complete rear about a simple statement I made.

Then maybe you should cite the post to which you are responding that is not the OP.

BTW, if you want to think I'm an rear, that's okay, really don't care what you think about me. But if it makes you feel better, have at it
 

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