Question on how to score a play, in which I see 2 maybe 3 possibilities. Either Hit or ROE, with a possibility of a FC. with runners advancing on subsequent error
Here’s the situation-
fast runner on second base 1 out in ITB (tiebreaker). Lefty and fast runner/ Batter bunts a near perfect bunt maybe 5-8 feet down 3b line. Catcher fields the ball and looks 1 as batter/runner Just about at 1st. Hence, no play at 1st. So the catcher throws to 3rd to attempt get the runner out who was at 2nd base and evidently hesitated before running to third. The runner gets about 1/2-3/4 of the way and runs back to 2nd. Then, In an attempt to get the runner out at second, a high throw is made That goes into center field. The runner would have probably been out at second if the throw were accurate and tag was applied. End result of play is runner who started at second scores and batter ends up at third.
I see this as being a hit or Roe credited to batter. As I consider the following rules
Section 4-c
c. When a fielder attempts to put out a preceding runner but is unsuccessful although there is no fielding error, and the of- ficial scorer believes the batter-runner would have reached first base with perfect fielding;
And consider the exception in 4-a as this not being a force out
SECTION 4—BaSE hIT
A base hit is credited when a batter advances to first base safely:
a. Because of his fair hit (rather than because of a fielder’s error as in 10-16);
Exception—It is not a base hit if any runner is out on a force play caused by the batter advancing toward first base or would have been forced out except for a fielding
So, would it be scored a base hit on the basis that #1, this was never a force out at 3rd. #2 a preceding runner was not put out and there was no chance to put out the runner/ batter?
The other option is a ROE because if the throw from third were good and handled well an out was maybe possible as runner was returning to second.
thanks
Of course, the least likely option I see is a fielders choice. Doesn’t make much sense though. As there was no play on the batter and the base runner was never forced to run.
Can anyone give me their interpretation of these rules.
Here’s the situation-
fast runner on second base 1 out in ITB (tiebreaker). Lefty and fast runner/ Batter bunts a near perfect bunt maybe 5-8 feet down 3b line. Catcher fields the ball and looks 1 as batter/runner Just about at 1st. Hence, no play at 1st. So the catcher throws to 3rd to attempt get the runner out who was at 2nd base and evidently hesitated before running to third. The runner gets about 1/2-3/4 of the way and runs back to 2nd. Then, In an attempt to get the runner out at second, a high throw is made That goes into center field. The runner would have probably been out at second if the throw were accurate and tag was applied. End result of play is runner who started at second scores and batter ends up at third.
I see this as being a hit or Roe credited to batter. As I consider the following rules
Section 4-c
c. When a fielder attempts to put out a preceding runner but is unsuccessful although there is no fielding error, and the of- ficial scorer believes the batter-runner would have reached first base with perfect fielding;
And consider the exception in 4-a as this not being a force out
SECTION 4—BaSE hIT
A base hit is credited when a batter advances to first base safely:
a. Because of his fair hit (rather than because of a fielder’s error as in 10-16);
Exception—It is not a base hit if any runner is out on a force play caused by the batter advancing toward first base or would have been forced out except for a fielding
So, would it be scored a base hit on the basis that #1, this was never a force out at 3rd. #2 a preceding runner was not put out and there was no chance to put out the runner/ batter?
The other option is a ROE because if the throw from third were good and handled well an out was maybe possible as runner was returning to second.
thanks
Of course, the least likely option I see is a fielders choice. Doesn’t make much sense though. As there was no play on the batter and the base runner was never forced to run.
Can anyone give me their interpretation of these rules.
