Runner hit by batted ball - small twist

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Aug 29, 2011
2,584
83
NorCal
Ok last night we had a somewhat unusual play I hadn't seen before.

Runner on 2nd base, ball hit in the hole between 3rd and SS. 3B playing in front of base line (BL) SS playing behind BL, runner on BL.

Ball hits off of 3B glove and is deflected into runners leg. SS is behind runner and now has no play. Batter probably would have beat it out but that's not the point.

The umpires rulling was that since 3B touched the ball the runner was NOT out for interference. All runners safe.

What I want to know is, was this the correct call? I know if 3B had not touched the ball and it hit the runner she would have been out because SS still had a potential chance to field the ball.

We were on offense at the time. Didn't help, we didn't score and lost 4-2 but we did play one of our best games of the year against a team tha beat us 11-0 in 4 innings just 2 weeks ago.
 
May 6, 2012
149
16
Texas
Yes this was the correct call. As long as the defense touches the ball before it hits the runner the runner is safe from an interference call. Now if the runner is the first person to touch the ball after it comes off the bat then the runner is automatically out not matter if there was a possible play to the ball or not.
 

Axe

Jul 7, 2011
459
18
Atlanta
Even if it hadn't hit the 3B's glove the runner wouldn't be out unless she ran into the SS trying to make the play or otherwise interfering. Once it passes the 3B, she's not automatically out because the ball hits her.
 
Aug 29, 2011
2,584
83
NorCal
Even if it hadn't hit the 3B's glove the runner wouldn't be out unless she ran into the SS trying to make the play or otherwise interfering. Once it passes the 3B, she's not automatically out because the ball hits her.

I don't think that is correct in this case beacuse if 3B had not tocuhed the ball and it had not hit runner SS clearly had a play on runner at 1B. Would have been a difficult play but makable.
 
Aug 29, 2011
2,584
83
NorCal
Yes this was the correct call. As long as the defense touches the ball before it hits the runner the runner is safe from an interference call. Now if the runner is the first person to touch the ball after it comes off the bat then the runner is automatically out not matter if there was a possible play to the ball or not.

No necessarily true. If the IF is playing in and ball has passed all IF before it hits the runner, she would be safe.
 
Jan 24, 2011
144
0
Texas
If this is ASA, the appropriate rule is on page 93 of the 2012 ASA rulebook and is 8-7(K): "The Runner is Out. When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before it passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or if it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out. EFFECT: The ball is dead and the runner is out. All other runners must return to the last base legally touched at the time of the intereference."

So, the ruling was correct for the play you described as the ball was touched rather than untouched.

Now, to your statement about how if it had been untouched, you say you know it would have been intereference. As you can see by the rule, it may or may not be, it would be a HTBT play. If in the umpires judgment after it passed F5 untouched, the question becomes does the SS have an opportunity to make an out based on your described play? That one gets a little harder to describe as judgment falls to each individual umpire.

Hope that helps.
 
Aug 29, 2011
2,584
83
NorCal
If this is ASA, the appropriate rule is on page 93 of the 2012 ASA rulebook and is 8-7(K): "The Runner is Out. When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before it passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or if it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out. EFFECT: The ball is dead and the runner is out. All other runners must return to the last base legally touched at the time of the intereference."

So, the ruling was correct for the play you described as the ball was touched rather than untouched.

Now, to your statement about how if it had been untouched, you say you know it would have been intereference. As you can see by the rule, it may or may not be, it would be a HTBT play. If in the umpires judgment after it passed F5 untouched, the question becomes does the SS have an opportunity to make an out based on your described play? That one gets a little harder to describe as judgment falls to each individual umpire.

Hope that helps.

Thanks. That does clear it up. On this particular play I think the judgement would have had to have been the SS did have a play if it had not been touched by 3B and runner would have been out. But good to know it is a judgement call and not clear cut safe/out call.
 
Nov 26, 2010
4,786
113
Michigan
Yes this was the correct call. As long as the defense touches the ball before it hits the runner the runner is safe from an interference call. Now if the runner is the first person to touch the ball after it comes off the bat then the runner is automatically out not matter if there was a possible play to the ball or not.

Not always true. If the ball passes a fielder other then the pitcher, before it hits the runner, the runner is not out. So in this same scenario, lets say the third baseman whiffs on the ball and it hits the runner passing behind her, runner is not out.
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
I believe that if a ball hits a runner before a defender the runner is out. The correct call was made on the field

Speaking ASA

The correct call was made, the runner is not out when hit be a deflected batted ball unless intentional
 

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