Is this interference?

[Sweet Lou]

Well, the batter would be out on the infield fly call, and the runner would be out on interference, since the fielder still has the right to catch the ball.

You can't have infield fly rule on a foul ball.

 

[MightyMO]

Here's the situation I am asking about for clarification:

Bases loaded with one out. Batter hits a pop fly about five feet behind first base. First baseman turns to field the ball and runs into the runner who had taken two steps off of first base. First baseman works around the runner and makes the catch. The umpire called the batter out and left the runner on first. Coach argued that the runner should be out but the umpire stated she wasn't because she was "returning to the base". I know that was wrong but I am looking to see what the proper call should have been.

In my mind, infield fly should have been called (I don't believe it ever was). If it had been called (on a fair ball) should both the batter and the baserunner have been out? It also sounds like if it wasn't called, the runner should have been out and not the hitter?

It didn't make a difference in the long run of the game so I am just asking for my own information.

 

[Comp]

Except in USA as you mentioned above? I would assume that would qualify for the rule you cited there?

One last question on this. What if infield fly is called and the baserunner leaves the base and runs into the defensive player attempting to make the catch? Would the runner or the batter be out? Or both?

The USA rule has nothing to do with the ball being caught or not. In USA if the runner interferes with a fielder on a pop fly ball catchable with normal effort, fair or foul both the runner and batter are out. There is no requirement to catch the ball and as I said, in any ruleset, once the interference is called nothing else can happen, the ball is dead at that moment.

 

[MightyMO]

In USA if the runner interferes with a fielder on a pop fly ball catchable with normal effort, fair or foul both the runner and batter are out. There is no requirement to catch the ball and as I said, in any ruleset, once the interference is called nothing else can happen, the ball is dead at that moment.

I understand. The point I was trying to make was that if the ball was caught then it would meet the criteria of "catchable with normal effort". Correct?

 

[Comp]

You can't catch a ball after interference has been called. Being able to catch it after being interfered with has nothing to do if it was normal effort or not. A runner may have just barely brushed a fielder or the may have laid them out completely.

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[MightyMO]

I understand that the catch doesn't "count" in this instance because the play is ruled dead on the interference. But you also mentioned that an umpire using the USA ruleset could determine that the batter is out if the ball was ruled catchable. In that instance, it sounds like the batter and runner who caused the interference would both be out in the play I'm referring to.

 

[Rolling Hard]

Does the ball need to be fair for the infield fly rule to be called? What if its a major league flyball and hard to determine fair or foul for a while ?(hang time)

 

[Comp]

In usa if the umpire judges the ball to be catchable with normal effort it isn't a question of he can also call the batter out, the rule says the batter is also out.

As to question on the infield fly, yes, the ball must be fair to have an infield fly.

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[QueueCT]

Does the ball need to be fair for the infield fly rule to be called? What if its a major league flyball and hard to determine fair or foul for a while ?(hang time)

Believe umpire should call "infield fly if fair"

 

[Comp]

Believe umpire should call "infield fly if fair"

If the ball is near the line they should say that.

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