In our game this saturday opponents had 2nd & 3rd 2 outs. A ground ball was hit to SS and runner starting on 2nd collided with SS while she was trying to field the ball for clear intererence. After a conference the umps came to the obvious conclusion that yes there was interference and the runner was called out.
The HPU came over and said the run did not count but the reason he gave was "becasue the runner had not crossed home before the interference occured." Was this the correct ruling? If the girl on 3rd crossed home before the contact between BR & SS should the run have counted because runner called out was not forced at 3rd?
My understanding on interference is immediate dead ball and runners return to last occupied base. However, I could see an interpertation that the runner crossing home before the interference would result in home plate being the last occupied base mean run counts. What is the correct ruling in this case? And would the rulling chage if in the umps opinion SS might have thrown runner out at 1B if no interference which would have been a 3rd out force at 1B?
The HPU came over and said the run did not count but the reason he gave was "becasue the runner had not crossed home before the interference occured." Was this the correct ruling? If the girl on 3rd crossed home before the contact between BR & SS should the run have counted because runner called out was not forced at 3rd?
My understanding on interference is immediate dead ball and runners return to last occupied base. However, I could see an interpertation that the runner crossing home before the interference would result in home plate being the last occupied base mean run counts. What is the correct ruling in this case? And would the rulling chage if in the umps opinion SS might have thrown runner out at 1B if no interference which would have been a 3rd out force at 1B?
