How do you interpret this rule about tie breaker?

[SquarePeg]

Here is the rule from the rec league documents

"The current rules of the ASA are in effect with the following notes, exceptions and highlights.  Time limit --- No new inning may begin after 1 hour and 45 minutes. If the game is tied, the international tie- breaker rule will be put into effect in the next inning after the time limit has expired. {Coaches are not allowed to waive this rule… or any other rule…for that matter} "

We play 7 innings. Game was tied after 7, 1 hour and 30 minutes elapsed time. Is the 8th inning subject to the international tie breaker rule?

Also - is the batter that made the last out in the previous inning supposed to be the runner on 2B for the tie breaker?

 

[canyonjoe]

I would say that 7 innings would supersede the time limit so that you would go to ITB in the 8th if tied.

I'm fairly certain the runner should be the last batter that can come up in that inning not the last out from the previous inning.

 

[Sweet Lou]

I agree 100% with Canyon joe. If the last batter from the previous inning is P or C of record you could courtesy run assuming you had available sub. Otherwise you could pinch run under normal substitution rules if you didn't want the last batter running.

 

[The Man In Blue]

Why? Why do we take simple rules and make them complex?

I’m going to forgo my usual corrections (there is nothing international about that rule, it is just a tie breaker rule; ASA has become USA Softball). Now that I didn’t mention those ...

Under USA Softball book rules, the tie breaker kicks in after seven innings OR the expiration of the time limit. Simple, right?

Your house league rule, as written, states the tie breaker is to be used after the expiration of the time limit. Period. If you play 10 innings under the time limit and the clock expires in the 11th inning, you would not use the tie breaker until the 12th.

The runner who starts on second base is the player preceding the first batter of the inning. So if your #4 hitter is the first batter for the inning, then your #3 batter starts on second base. If #1 is leading off the inning, #9 goes to second base. Simple, right?

Sweet Lou is correct about courtesy runners and substitutions. I would caution against saying “last batter of the previous inning” though. What if the third out was a runner thrown out stealing? Your last batter is your first batter.

 

[SquarePeg]

I would say that 7 innings would supersede the time limit so that you would go to ITB in the 8th if tied.

I'm fairly certain the runner should be the last batter that can come up in that inning not the last out from the previous inning.

I also thought that the tie breaker should kick in after regulation 7 innings. But on reading the rule, it does seem to indicate only after the time limit has expired. Makes no sense to me why it would be this way...

 

[SquarePeg]

I agree 100% with Canyon joe. If the last batter from the previous inning is P or C of record you could courtesy run assuming you had available sub. Otherwise you could pinch run under normal substitution rules if you didn't want the last batter running.

It's a summer rec league and we bat continuous so no pinch running or hitting. I couldn't find it specified anywhere in the rule book as to who the runner should be...

 

[SquarePeg]

Why? Why do we take simple rules and make them complex?

I’m going to forgo my usual corrections (there is nothing international about that rule, it is just a tie breaker rule; ASA has become USA Softball). Now that I didn’t mention those ...

Under USA Softball book rules, the tie breaker kicks in after seven innings OR the expiration of the time limit. Simple, right?

Your house league rule, as written, states the tie breaker is to be used after the expiration of the time limit. Period. If you play 10 innings under the time limit and the clock expires in the 11th inning, you would not use the tie breaker until the 12th.

The runner who starts on second base is the player preceding the first batter of the inning. So if your #4 hitter is the first batter for the inning, then your #3 batter starts on second base. If #1 is leading off the inning, #9 goes to second base. Simple, right?

Sweet Lou is correct about courtesy runners and substitutions. I would caution against saying “last batter of the previous inning” though. What if the third out was a runner thrown out stealing? Your last batter is your first batter.

Yes it seems like such a ridiculous thing to deviate on. Thanks for the input.

 

[Momo'sDad]

What did you end up deciding? Did you play an 8th inning straight? Or did you go with the tiebreak setup with a runner on?

 

[SquarePeg]

What did you end up deciding? Did you play an 8th inning straight? Or did you go with the tiebreak setup with a runner on?

We played a straight 8th and a straight 9th inning! before we lost by 1 on a walk off sacrifice fly bottom of the 9th. Never got to use the tie breaker as the 8th was also quick so we were still under 1:45 and tied after 8.. We scored 1 in top of 9th but couldn’t hold them. Was a fun and exciting game and fair - was just curious how others read that house rule in case it comes up again. We would have preferred to use the tie breaker as we were batting the top of our order in the 8th and they were at their bottom.

I think in my 5 years coaching the younger kids in rec we never had a complete game lol - always ran into the time limit by the 5th or 6th inning. This is certainly different and brings up rules I’ve never had to bother with before.

 

[The Man In Blue]

It's a summer rec league and we bat continuous so no pinch running or hitting. I couldn't find it specified anywhere in the rule book as to who the runner should be...

If you have the USA Softball rule book ... Rule 5, Section 11 (Tie-Breaker Rule).