Pitch hits ground before hitting batter

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Feb 18, 2014
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speaking of balls hitting the dirt first, if a batter swings at a ball in the dirt and it's the third strike, is the D3K rule still in effect? AC says it is and batter-runner could have gone to an open 1B as catcher did not make the catch. I thought I had read that ball in dirt nullifies the rule and it is an out.
The rule says a third strike that the catcher fails to catch.

A ball in the dirt, wasn't caught.

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Apr 17, 2012
806
18
Wi
Here's your NFHS rule. 8.1.4.c


c. (F.P.) a pitched ball (not entirely in the batter's box) not swung at nor called a strike touches any part of the batter's person or clothing. It does not matter if the ball strikes the ground before hitting the batter. The batter's hands are not to be considered part of the bat. If no attempt is made to avoid being hit, the batter will not be awarded first base unless it is ball four.

However, the preceding rule 8.1.4.b does not clarify the bounce question.

b. (F.P.) a pitched ball is entirely within the batter’s box and it strikes the batter or her clothing. No attempt to avoid being hit by the pitch is required. However, the batter may not obviously try to get hit by the pitch.


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Dont these contradict eachother?

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marriard

Not lost - just no idea where I am
Oct 2, 2011
4,312
113
Florida
speaking of balls hitting the dirt first, if a batter swings at a ball in the dirt and it's the third strike, is the D3K rule still in effect? AC says it is and batter-runner could have gone to an open 1B as catcher did not make the catch. I thought I had read that ball in dirt nullifies the rule and it is an out.

Yes, D3K is in effect. There is no discussion on where the ball hit the ground in the rules - that is irrelevant. Not caught by the catcher in flight is not caught by the catcher in flight.

NFHS it is covered in 8.1.1 and there is a specific case play that applies:

8.1.1 SITUATION C:
With two outs and two strikes on B3, B3 swings and misses the next pitch which hits in the dirt and bounces into F2's mitt. Is B3 entitled to attempt to advance to first base?

RULING: Yes. Had F2 caught F1's pitch in flight, B3 would have been out.
 

marriard

Not lost - just no idea where I am
Oct 2, 2011
4,312
113
Florida
Dont these contradict eachother?

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No - two specific scenarios - One deals with the ball entirely in the batters box and one with the ball not entirely in the batters box.

If the ball IS NOT entirely in the batters box then 8.1.4.c applies. Ball is dead and umpire can rule it a ball or strike depending on where the ball actually is.

If the ball IS entirely in the batters box than 8.1.4.b applies.
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
Dont these contradict eachother?

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No. They actually compliment each other with one addressing the ball completely in the BB and the other addressing a pitched ball which is not
 
Nov 18, 2015
1,585
113
Do ASA and USSSA also differentiate between "entirely in" and "not entirely within" the batter's box?
 
Feb 18, 2014
348
28
USSSA does not (8.4.D). You can find how the rules is interpreted here: http://www.usssa.com/docs/2018/2018_FP_Intrepretations.pdf

I don't have an ASA book on me :)
As of 2015 rule book

(Fast Pitch) When a pitched ball not swung at nor called a strike touches any part of the batter’s person including the hands or clothing.
EFFECT:*Dead ball, the batter is entitled to first base without liability to be put out.
EXCEPTION:*If no attempt is made to avoid being hit, the batter will not be awarded first base unless it is ball four.
NOTE:*The batter’s hands are not part of the bat.



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Jun 11, 2013
2,619
113
I am amazed at how often I hear people think it's not a HBP because it bounces. I wonder where they grew up playing or if they live in some alternative universe.
 

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