In DD's game, an interesting situation came up. She plays 8U in a B rec league (we're in Southern California). It's kid pitch.
On the 2-2 pitch, the pitcher threw a little too far inside. The batter swung and missed, and the pitch hit her in the arm. The umpire ruled that she wasn't awarding a base because the batter was swinging the bat when she was hit, so it was strike 3, and the batter was out.
But the other team's coach started barking at her that she couldn't ring her up on a hit by pitch, it should be like a foul ball, and the umpire admitted that she wasn't clear on the rule so the count was still 2-2.
But was that the right call? It seems to me like the ump's initial call was correct; how could a ball that never hit the bat end up being treated like a foul ball?
On the 2-2 pitch, the pitcher threw a little too far inside. The batter swung and missed, and the pitch hit her in the arm. The umpire ruled that she wasn't awarding a base because the batter was swinging the bat when she was hit, so it was strike 3, and the batter was out.
But the other team's coach started barking at her that she couldn't ring her up on a hit by pitch, it should be like a foul ball, and the umpire admitted that she wasn't clear on the rule so the count was still 2-2.
But was that the right call? It seems to me like the ump's initial call was correct; how could a ball that never hit the bat end up being treated like a foul ball?
