If a runner is hit by a batted ball she is out unless the ball goes by or through an infielder and no other infielder has a play on it. The runner is actually ruled out for interference. So why is the runner out if there is no infielder in position to make a play? Case: runner breaks for 2nd on a steal, 2nd baseman breaks to cover the base, a line drive hits the runner when she is between the bases with no infielder in the area, who did she interfere with?
Runner Hit by Batted Ball
- Thread starter ArmWhip
- Start date
Welcome to Discuss Fastpitch
Your FREE Account is waiting to the Best Softball Community on the Web.
- Jun 22, 2008
- 3,438
- 48
Because that is not a requirement of the rule and if it were a line drive, there is always the possibility the RF may have had a play
ASA specifically defines a "play" as having an opportunity to retire a runner, ie., make an out.
One of the rare times that this would come into play is a ball hit sharply through the right side of the infield and F9 being able to retire the batter-runner at first.
Or force plays at 2nd and 3rd involve RF and CF. More common at younger levels where outfielders don't play deep.
I don't see this. Doesn't the rule specify infielders? Lets say F4 is playing in and runner is behind her on the way to 2B and gets hit by the ball. Why would she be out?
I think it becomes an umpire judgement at that point but if F4 is in in that situation I think most umps will rule no out in that situation. Though as other umps have indicated it is possible they believe the RF may have a play on the ball to record an out and could rule interference. At least that is my understanding in softball. That doesn't generally come into play in baseball as ground balls to the outfield are rarely outs except in some unusual circumstances or at very young ages with short bases and short outfields.
- Jun 22, 2008
- 3,438
- 48
Speaking ASA
No, ASA has not specified "infielders", I believe, for more than a decade.
However, it isn't just making a play, but the umpire must judge the player could have made an out.
i do slow pitch and i have not called the runner out a few times on balls hit up the middle and it hits the runner at 2nd no chance for a play by either middle infielder or a chance for either outfielder. am i wrong on that?
- Jun 22, 2008
- 3,438
- 48
Speaking ASA
Doesn't make any difference if someone has a play on the ball, if it did not literally pass an infielder (not including the pitcher) and the runner is not in contact with the base, the runner is out by rule. 8.7.K
