Scoring question on a bunt

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Strike2

Allergic to BS
Nov 14, 2014
2,044
113
Whoa! My bad on latching onto the baseball vs softball definition regarding the attempt, but there's still a big caveat on whether "the runner would have been out had the initial play gone to first base". Clearly, it's not an "all day long" situation". Bunts are often close plays, and check doesn't automatically make it an FC.
 
Jun 11, 2013
2,619
113
Even if you don't give the batter a hit, you need at least need to compensate the batter for the fact that she advanced the runners so you could argue that it's Sac with no out but I don't see any way this could be considered a FC unless the scorer felt it was a bunt attempt for a hit only
 
Nov 18, 2013
2,255
113
Whoa! My bad on latching onto the baseball vs softball definition regarding the attempt, but there's still a big caveat on whether "the runner would have been out had the initial play gone to first base". Clearly, it's not an "all day long" situation". Bunts are often close plays, and check doesn't automatically make it an FC.

True. I think it’s pretty cut and dry in college that if they check the runner it’s a FC. If there’s no check and it just a no throw that’ll be more of a judgement call and usually a hit.
 
Jun 7, 2019
170
43
Whoa! My bad on latching onto the baseball vs softball definition regarding the attempt, but there's still a big caveat on whether "the runner would have been out had the initial play gone to first base". Clearly, it's not an "all day long" situation". Bunts are often close plays, and check doesn't automatically make it an FC.

That's where the "umpire's judgement" comes in.
 
Jun 7, 2019
170
43
Even if you don't give the batter a hit, you need at least need to compensate the batter for the fact that she advanced the runners so you could argue that it's Sac with no out but I don't see any way this could be considered a FC unless the scorer felt it was a bunt attempt for a hit only

If she checked the runners and made no throw, then no runners advanced.
 
Nov 18, 2013
2,255
113
Even if you don't give the batter a hit, you need at least need to compensate the batter for the fact that she advanced the runners so you could argue that it's Sac with no out but I don't see any way this could be considered a FC unless the scorer felt it was a bunt attempt for a hit only

Runners didn’t advance. They checked the runner and held her at third. Can’t have a sac if no runners advance. Only other other possibilities in described scenario are hit or FC. Possibly defensive indifference if it’s bottom of 7th in a tie game or something. This will almost always be a FC unless the runner is lightening fast.
 
Jun 11, 2013
2,619
113
Runners didn’t advance. They checked the runner and held her at third. Can’t have a sac if no runners advance. Only other other possibilities in described scenario are hit or FC. Possibly defensive indifference if it’s bottom of 7th in a tie game or something. This will almost always be a FC unless the runner is lightening fast.
Unless I missed it I don't see where they held the runner, just check to see if they had a play.
 
Jul 22, 2015
851
93
Unless I missed it I don't see where they held the runner, just check to see if they had a play.

That's exactly how I meant it. I probablyshould have said "checked to see if she had a play on the runner". If it matters, there was no play as the runner from 2B was ahead of the SS trying to cover 3B. When she looked back to 1B dd was crossing the bag.
 
Nov 18, 2013
2,255
113
That's exactly how I meant it. I probablyshould have said "checked to see if she had a play on the runner". If it matters, there was no play as the runner from 2B was ahead of the SS trying to cover 3B. When she looked back to 1B dd was crossing the bag.

In that instance I'd call it a hit. I thought you had a runner on third and the infielder "checked" the runner to hold her.
 

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